Psychology of Sport Test 1 Questions and Answers

1. Which of the following are sport psychology organizations?
a. Association for the Advancement of Applied Sport Psychology
b. North American Society for Sport Psychology and Physical Activity
c. American Sport Psychology Association
d. All of the above
e. A and b

2. The least reliable method of obtaining knowledge is
a. Introspection
b. Intuition
c. Shared experience
d. Single case study
e. Systematic observation

3. Educational sport psychologists usually have years of training in
a. Psychology
b. Education
c. Sport and exercise science
d. Sociology
e. Educational psychology

4. Which of the following explain(s) the sport psychology research-to-practice gap?
a. Few applied forums to disseminate research to practitioners
b. Emphasis on basic laboratory research in the 1960s and 1970s
c. Emphasis on the field experiments in the 1980s
d. All of the above
e. A and b

5. Knowledge gained through experience working in exercise and sport science field situations is called
a. Empirical knowledge
b. Professional practice knowledge
c. Scientific knowledge
d. Professional knowledge
e. Theoretical knowledge

6. Credit for much of the development of sport psychology internationally goes to ________ the first president of the International Society for Sport Psychology
a. Franklin Henry
b. Dietmar Klein
c. Yuri Hanin
d. Ferruccio Antonelli
e. Gershon Tanenbarum

7. The major strength of scientifically derived knowledge is its
a. Validity
b. Reliability
c. Importance
d. Impact on society
e. None of the above

8. Zajonc’s social facilitation theory predicts that
a. Performance on well-learned tasks is facilitated by an audience
b. Performance on novel tasks is facilitated by an audience
c. Performance on a well-learned task is hindered by an audience
d. Performance is not affected by an audience
e. Performance is improved on both novel and well-learned tasks in front of an audience

9. Which of the following are sport and exercise psychology journals?
a. Journal of Applied Sport Psychology
b. The Sport Psychologist
c. Journal of Sport and Exercise Psychology
d. All of the above
e. A and C

10. The major difference between how a practitioner and a researcher (using the scientific method) would investigate a problem is that the researcher’s approach would be more
a. Systematic
b. Controlled
c. Empirical
d. All of the above
e. A and B

11. Which of the following is NOT a method of knowing?
a. Single case study
b. Shared public experience
c. Introspection
d. Rationalism
e. Systematic observation

12. Sport and exercise psychology is first and foremost a
a. Science
b. Art
c. Applied field of study
d. Laboratory-based field of study
e. None of the above

13. The strength of professional practice knowledge is its
a. Holistic nature
b. Innovative contribution
c. Scientific validity and reliability
d. All of the above
e. A and B

14. Which successful coach is noted for adopting a sport science approach in his coaching?
a. “Doc” Counsilman
b. Robert Rotella
c. Jim Thorpe
d. Casey Stengel

15. The ultimate goal of science is
a. Prediction
b. Description
c. Explanation
d. Control
e. Theory

16. Coleman Griffith worked with all of the following famous coaches and athletes except
a. Red Grange
b. Knute Rockne
c. Dizzy Dean
d. Babe Ruth

17. Which of the following will the field of sport and exercise psychology face in the future?
a. Unqualified people doing consulting in sport psychology
b. Few full-time positions in sport psychology involving consulting with athletes
c. The need for physical education and exercise specialists to receive sport and exercise psychology information
d. All of the above
e. A and C

18. The father of American sport psychology is
a. Coleman Griffith
b. Rainer Martens
c. Dan Landers
d. Dan Gould
e. Robert Singer

19. Which of the following events did not occur during period 5?
a. Journal of Sport Psychology was established
b. The Olympic committee hired the first full-time sport psychologist
c. The journal The Sport Psychologist was established
d. Sport psychologists started licensure standards
e. APA Division 47 was formed

20. The most reliable method of obtaining knowledge is
a. Introspection
b. A single case study
c. Systematic observation
d. Scientific method
e. Shared experiences

21. Actively applying knowledge of sport and exercise psychology requires
a. Keeping up-to-date on your scientific knowledge base
b. Holding realistic expectations concerning the strengths and limitations of scientific principles
c. Applying scientific principles in your professional practice setting
d. All of the above
e. A and B

22. Sport psychology specialists have three roles. These include
a. Teaching, research, and consulting
b. Teaching, administration, and consulting
c. Research, administration, and teaching
d. Teaching, intervention, and research
e. Intervention, teaching, and consulting

23. Scientifically derived knowledge has some limitations, including that it
a. Is reductionistic
b. Is very fast to evolve
c. Tends to be conservative
d. All of the above
e. A and C

24. Which of the following statements is (are) true?
a. Sport psychology focuses on the concerns of the elite athlete
b. Sport psychology focuses on the competitive sport of young athletes
c. Sport psychology is actually concerned with both sport and exercise settings
d. Sport psychology focuses on recreational athletes
e. None of the above

25. Behavior is determined by the interaction of the environment and personal makeup of the performer. This idea is an example of a
a. Cognitive-behavioral orientation
b. Behavioral orientation
c. Cognitive-affective orientation
d. Social-psychological orientation
e. Cognitive-environmental orientation

26. Which of the following events did NOT occur in period 6 (2000-present)?
a. Psychology of Sport and Exercise journal is published in Europe
b. Division 47 of the American Psychological Association focuses on sport psychology as a specialized competency area
c. Association for the Advancement of Applied Sport Psychology is established
d. A and C
e. B and C

27. Which of the following researchers was NOT prominent during period 1 (1895-1920)?
a. EW Scripture
b. GT Patrick
c. Norman Triplett
d. R Cummins
e. Ed McAuley

28. Which professional sport psychology association is responsible for developing standards for certification of individuals working in applied sport psychology settings?
a. North American Society for the Psychology of Sport and Physical Activity
b. International Society of Sport Psychology
c. Association of Applied Sport Psychology
d. American Psychological Association Division 47
e. Applied Sport Psychology Society

29. Research by Landers and his colleagues, using biofeedback techniques to train elite marksmen to shoot between heartbeats, is a good example of a
a. Cognitive-behavioral orientation
b. Cognitive-affective orientation
c. Behavioral orientation
d. Psychophysiological orientation
e. Physiological-environmental orientation

30. Which of the following is NOT a general ethical principle outlined by the American Psychological Association?
a. Social responsibility
b. Integrity
c. Professional and scientific responsibility
d. Individualization
e. Competence

31. In the fifth period, sport psychology experienced a tremendous growth in
a. Theoretical development
b. Applied research
c. Professional service
d. A and B
e. B and C

32. Which type of question would NOT fall under the category of “what effect do psychological factors have on an individual’s performance?
a. Does self-confidence influence a child’s ability to learn to swim?
b. How does anxiety affect a tennis player’s service accuracy?
c. Does running reduce one’s anxiety and depression?
d. How does punishment influence an individual’s motivation to continue participation in sport?
e. How does concentration affect performance in fine motor tasks?

33. Test anxiety is an example of a
a. Trait measure
b. State measure
c. Situational-specific trait measure
d. Situational-specific state measure

34. Which of the following statements about exercise and personality is (are) true?
a. There is a positive relationship between exercise and self-concept
b. Exercise has consistently been related to changes from Type A behavior to Type B behavior
c. Exercise participation is most strongly related to social self-concept
d. A and B
e. A and C

35. To better understand personality, you should
a. Be a good communicator
b. Be an informed consumer
c. Use lots of personality tests with athletes
d. Be a good observer
e. Consider both personality traits and states

36. The research criticizing Morgan’s mental health model and implications of the “iceberg profile” has argued that
a. The iceberg profile accounts for only a very small percentage of athlete’s performance variation
b. The iceberg profile only differentiates athletes from nonathletes and does not differentiate between athletes of different ability levels
c. The Profile of Mood States (POMS) is not a reliable test
d. A and B
e. A and C

37. Morgan developed the _________ model to help explain the relationship between personality-mood states and athletic success
a. Normative
b. Mental health
c. Psychological skills
d. Psychopathology

Which is NOT an example of situational-specific sport inventory?
a. Sport Competition Anxiety Test
b. Group Environment Questionnaire
c. Profile of Mood States
d. Trait-State Confidence Inventory
e. Competitive State Anxiety Inventory

39. Based on psychological data only, Morgan was successful in predicting ______ out of 16 rowers who eventually made the US heavyweight rowing team
a. 5
b. 12
c. 10
d. 14
e. 7

40. Recently the “big five” model of personality has become widely accepted. Which of the following is not one of the five personality factors in the model?
a. Agreeableness
b. Conscientiousness
c. Neuroticism
d. Extraversion
e. Depression

41. When administering tests to athletes, which of the following guidelines should be followed?
a. Explain to athletes why the tests are being given
b. Tell athletes what the tests measure
c. Provide specific feedback concerning test results
d. All of the above

42. Which of the following is (are) NOT a question(s) that a researcher using the interactionalist approach would ask?
a. Will anxious athletes perform better than less anxious athletes in situations that are not stressful?
b. Will extroverts perform better than introverts in a team situation?
c. Will highly motivated people choose to participate in competitive situations?
d. Will kids with high self-esteem prefer competitive sport situations to a greater degree than kids low on self-esteem?

43. The research investigating the personality profiles of athletes and nonathletes has found that
a. No specific personality profile distinguishes athletes from nonathletes
b. Athletes have higher levels of anxiety than nonathletes
c. Athletes are more introverted than nonathletes
d. Athletes have higher levels of self-esteem than nonathletes

44. A weakness in the psychodynamic approach is its
a. Sole focus on internal determinants of behavior
b. Lack of attention to the social environment
c. Sole focus on external determinants of behavior
d. A and B
e. B and C

45. The situational approach to personality assumes that
a. Individuals behave differently across situations
b. Individuals behave similarly across situations
c. If the situation is strong, the effect of personality traits would be minimal
d. A and B
e. A and C

46. Showing a person a picture of an athlete arguing with an official and then asking the person to write about what is happening is an example of
a. Objective testing
b. Projective testing
c. Multidimensional personality assessment
d. Unidimensional personality assessment
e. Psychological state-trait inventory

47. Research in the general psychological literature indicates that nature (ex: genetics) generally accounts for approximately what percentage of behavior?
a. 10-20%
b. 20-30%
c. 30-40%
d. 50-60%
e. 80-90%

48. Which of the following is (are) true?
a. Successful female athletes differ in personality from female nonathletes
b. Male and female elite athletes have similar personality profiles
c. Female athletes are more aggressive and independent than female nonathletes
d. All of the above

49. Which of the following is (are) important when administering psychological inventories?
a. Knowledge of testing principles and measurement error
b. Sensitivity to one’s own limitations
c. Whether to use tests for team selections
d. All of the above

50. Which of the following is NOT a level in Hollander’s model of personality structure?
a. Childhood experiences
b. Psychological core
c. Typical responses
d. Role-related behavior
e. A and B

51. The interactional approach assumes that
a. Situational and personal variables are co-determinants of behavior
b. Personality interacts with the psychological core to determine behavior
c. Highly aggressive people, for example, will usually react in an aggressive manner when placed in an aggressive situation
d. A and C
e. A and B

52. Eysenck and Eysenck argue that personality can be understood by focusing on which of the following traits?
a. Neuroticism-stability
b. Introversion-extroversion
c. Relaxation-anxiety
d. A and B
e. All of the above

53. The most superficial and therefore most easily changed part of a personality structure is its
a. Psychological core
b. Role-related behavior
c. Typical responses
d. Belief system

54. Recently, the psychodynamic approach has been applied to sport by Swedish sport psychologist Erwin Apitzsch. This new approach came from his work with athletes focusing on
a. The superego
b. Defense mechanisms
c. Ego development
d. Early childhood experiences
e. Id-superego conflicts

55. Taking an intra-individual approach to psychological testing means that
a. Individuals are compared against population norms
b. Individuals are compared against how they usually score on a particular psychological inventory
c. Individuals are compared to norms for their age and gender
d. Individuals are compared based on objective and subjective assessments

56. The trait approach to personality assumes that
a. People behave differently in different situations
b. People behave similarly in different situations
c. Personality does not change much over time
d. A and C
e. B and C

57. Which of the following is not a subscale from the Athletic Coping Skills Inventory?
a. Concentration
b. Coachability
c. Goal setting
d. Imagery
e. Freedom from worry

58. In the iceberg profile developed by Morgan, which of the following psychological characteristics that successful athletes display is typically above the mean of the population?
a. Anxiety
b. Anger
c. Fatigue
d. Vigor
e. Confusion

59. Approximately how many articles have been published on sport personality in the professional sport psychology literature?
a. 100
b. 300
c. 1000
d. 2000
e. 5000

60. Which of the following is (are) true?
a. Participation in competitive sport procedures changes in personality structure
b. Compared with nonathletes, individual-sport athletes are less anxious and more dependent
c. Compared with nonathletes, team-sport athletes are more introverted and independent
d. A and B
e. B and C

61. According to results from in-depth interviews with Olympic athletes, medalists exhibited which of the following mental strategies?
a. More positive self-talk
b. More extensive mental preparation
c. Better preparedness for unforeseen negative events
d. All of the above
e. A and B

62. Researchers have recently used the Athletic Coping Skills Inventory (ACSI) to investigate the relationship between coping skills and performance. Results have indicated that
a. Good psychological coping skills help athletes get the most out of their ability
b. Good psychological coping skills are associated with continued involvement in professional baseball
c. The ACSO is a good tool to use for team selection
d. All of the above
e. A and B

63. Recent research has been critical of some of the findings concerning the relationship between mood states and performance. Which of the following is NOT a recommended guideline for using mood profiling with elite athletes?
a. Use it as a monitor of training load
b. Use it as a monitor of the acclimatization process
c. Use it as a predictor of team success
d. Use it as a monitor of emotional response to injury
e. Use it for identification of overtrained athletes

64. Trait anxiety refers to ___________ anxiety, whereas state anxiety refers to ________ anxiety
a. General; momentary
b. Momentary; general
c. Competitive; noncompetitive
d. Noncompetitive; competitive

65. Which of the following is NOT a major reason for initially joining an exercise program?
a. Weight loss
b. Fitness
c. Health factors
d. Affiliation
e. To feel better

66. Internal and external attributions are linked to
a. Emotional reactions
b. Cognitions
c. Expectations
d. Behavioral intent
e. Self-talk

67. The most difficult but most important component of structuring sport and exercise environments to meet an athlete’s or exerciser’s needs is
a. Individualizing your coaching and teaching
b. Finding rigorous training environments
c. Deciding on what motivational strategy to use
d. Balancing extrinsic and intrinsic motivation

68. Competence motivation theory was based on the research of developmental psychologist
a. Tara Scanlan
b. Susan Harter
c. Thelma Horn
d. Glyn Roberts
e. Albert Bandura

69. Which of the following statements is (are) true?
a. Mastery goals should be instead of outcome goals
b. Feedback to student athletes should emphasize attributing their success to high ability and high effort
c. Lack of effort, rather lack of ability, attributions should be emphasized following failure
d. All of the above

70. Which of the following is (are) true concerning need achievement theory?
a. High achievers have high motivation to avoid success and low motivation to avoid failure
b. High achievers enjoy evaluating their abilities
c. Low achievers often become preoccupied with thoughts of failure
d. All of the above
e. A and C

71. A task goal orientation will usually lead to which of the following?
a. Persistence in the face of failure
b. Selecting difficult tasks or opponents
c. A strong work ethic
d. All of the above
e. A and B

72. Attribution theory focuses on
a. How individuals explain their success and failure
b. How groups explain their personality attributes
c. How individuals explain their personality attributes
d. How individuals explain their personal biases
e. None of the above

73. What is critical in affecting the performance and behavior of sport and exercise participants is
a. Motivation
b. Physiology
c. Biomechanics
d. Sociological factors
e. All of the above

74. In a general sense, motivation can be defined as
a. The intensity and direction of one’s effort
b. The direction and width of one’s effort
c. The intensity of one’s effort
d. The direction of one’s effort
e. None of the above

75. What are the two primary situational considerations in need achievement theory?
a. Probability of success; motive to achieve success
b. Probability of success; incentive value of success
c. Resultant achievement motivation; probability of success
d. Incentive value of success; pride or shame
e. Pride or shame; probability of success

76. Personal motivation usually is the result of
a. Personal factors
b. Situational factors
c. A combination of personal and situation factors
d. The previous history of success or failure
e. None of the above

77. To understand students’, athletes’, and exercisers’ motives for involvement, one should
a. Observe participants to see what they like and do not like about the activity
b. Talk to others who know the athletes and exercisers
c. Periodically ask the participants to list their reasons for participation
d. All of the above

78. Sport-specific form of achievement motivation is called
a. Competitiveness
b. Confidence
c. Mental preparation
d. Mental toughness
e. None of the above

79. Which type of motivational climate is associated with the most adaptive motivational changes?
a. Mastery
b. Performance
c. Outcome
d. Decision making
e. Attributional

80. Attribute retraining generally focuses on changing
a. Low-ability attributions
b. High-effort attributions
c. High-ability attributions
d. Task difficulty attributions
e. Luck attributions

81. Which is the most widely endorsed view of motivation taken by sport psychologists?
a. Trait
b. Situation
c. Interactionalistic
d. Individualist
e. None of the above

82. Which of the following is NOT a general orientation to motivation?
a. Trait
b. Situation
c. Individualistic
d. Interactionalist
e. None of the above

83. The interactionalist view of motivation argues that motivation is an interaction of which two factors?
a. Trait and situation
b. Trait and individualistic
c. Situation and individualistic
d. Trait and personal
e. Personal and individualistic

84. A disposition to strive for satisfaction when making comparisons with a standard of excellence in the presence of evaluative others” is the definition of which of the following?
a. Achievement motivation in sport or competitiveness
b. Self-esteem
c. Self-confidence
d. Self-concept
e. None of the above

85. Defining motivation in a variety of ways is disadvantageous because
a. The precise topics of motivation are seldom identified
b. Practitioners often do not recognize how specific motivational strategies interact and influence one another
c. Intrinsic motivation is confused with extrinsic motivation
d. A and B
e. A and C

86. For high achievers, which situation provides the MOST incentive for engaging in achievement behavior?
a. 50% chance of success
b. 25% chance of success
c. 75% chance of success
d. 60% chance of success
e. 10% chance of success

87. In the competence motivation, model _______ and _______ influence perceived competence, which in turn influences affect and motivation.
a. Feedback; attributions
b. Feedback; motivational orientations
c. Motivational orientations; attributions
d. Motivational climate; self-esteem
e. Perceived control; feedback

88. An athlete is more motivated when playing against competition that is better than she is than when she plays better than the competition. This is an example of which approach to motivation?
a. Trait
b. Situation
c. Interactionalist
d. Individualistic
e. None of the above

89. Which of the following is (are) true?
a. Mastery goals should be used instead of outcome goals
b. Feedback to student athletes should emphasize attributing their success to high ability and high effort
c. Lack of effort, rather than lack of ability, attributions should be emphasized following fatigue
d. All of the above

90. For low achievers, which situation provides the LEAST incentive for engaging in achievement behaviors?
a. 50% chance of success
b. 25% chance of success
c. 75% chance of success
d. 60% chance of success
e. 10% chance of success

91. A study by Sorrentino and Sheppard on motivation of swimmers found that
a. Approval-oriented swimmers demonstrated faster times in the group than in the individual situation
b. Approval-oriented swimmers demonstrated fast times in the individual situation than in the group situation
c. Rejection-oriented swimmers swam faster in individual than in relay situations
d. A and C
e. B and C

92. Which of the following is NOT an attributional category?
a. Stability
b. Causality
c. Control
d. Persistence

93. Bill is always concerned with comparing his ability to others’ and winning. Bill thus has
a. Mastery goal orientation
b. Task goal orientation
c. Attributional goal orientation
d. Outcome goal orientation
e. Achievement goal orientation

94. “Self-competition” refers to __________, whereas performance is socially evaluative situations refers to ___________
a. Competition, achievement motivation
b. Competition, social facilitation
c. Achievement motivation, competition
d. Achievement motivation, social facilitation
e. Competition, ego involvement

95. Which of the following is NOT a stage of development in competitiveness and achievement motivation?
a. Autonomous competence
b. Integrated
c. Social comparison
d. Perceived competence

96. As used in sport psychology literature, motivation can refer to
a. An internal personality characteristic
b. An external influence
c. Consequence of an explanation for behavior
d. All of the above
e. A and B

97. An effective technique to use to change undesirable participant motives is
a. Behavior modification
b. Cognitive intervention
c. Rational emotive therapy
d. Cognitive restructuring
e. Self-monitoring

98. Ability is considered a(n) __________ and ___________ attribute
a. Stable; external
b. Stable; internal
c. Unstable; internal
d. Unstable; external
e. Controllable; unstable

99. Stable attributions are linked to
a. Affect
b. Cognitions
c. Expectations of future state or failure
d. Emotions
e. None of the above

100. Which of the following is NOT one of the major motives for participating in sport and exercise?
a. Having fun
b. Being with friends
c. Improving skills
d. Pleasing parents
e. Developing fitness

101. The overriding characteristic of individuals’ exhibiting learned helpless behavior is
a. Attributing success to effort
b. Feeling their actions have no impact on desired outcomes
c. Attributing failure to bad luck
d. Feeling they are in control of their actions
e. None of the above

102. According to catastrophe theory, to recover from a catastrophe the athlete must
a. Completely relax physically
b. Control worries through cognitive restructuring
c. Reactivate in a controlled manner
d. All of the above
e. A and B

103. A substantial imbalance between demand and response capability under conditions in which failure has important consequence refers to
a. Arousal
b. Sensational pressure
c. Stress
d. State anxiety
e. Trait anxiety

104. Which of the following is (are) true?
a. Increased anxiety is always debilitating to performance
b. Athletes who perceive their anxiety as facilitating rather than harming their performances exhibit higher levels of performance
c. The intensity of anxiety is more important than its direction
d. A and B
e. B and C

105. The linear relationship between arousal and performance suggests that
a. As arousal increases, performance decreases
b. As arousal decreases, performance decreases
c. As arousal increases, performance increases
d. As arousal decreases, performance increases
e. Arousal performance increases to an optimal level, and beyond this, performance decreases

106. Which of the following is NOT symptomatic of heightened state anxiety?
a. Profuse sweating
b. Slowed breathing
c. Increased muscle tension
d. Inability to concentrate
e. Sleeping difficulties

107. A moment-to-moment change in one’s perceived physiological activation is referred to as
a. Cognitive state anxiety
b. Somatic state anxiety
c. Activation
d. Trait anxiety
e. Stress

108. The importance placed on an event and the uncertainty that surrounds the actions of that event are sources of
a. State anxiety
b. Trait anxiety
c. Arousal
d. Personal stress
e. Situational stress

109. In Hanin’s work on individualized zones of optimal functioning, he argues that for best performance to occur an athlete needs
a. An optimal level of state anxiety
b. An optimal level of trait anxiety
c. An optimal level of state anxiety and other emotions
d. An optimal level of arousal
e. An optimal level of physiological arousal

110. Arousal refers to the
a. Direction of motivation
b. Intensity of motivation
c. Frequency of motivated behavior
d. Interaction of cognition and emotions
e. A and D

111. The inverted U-hypothesis predicts that
a. As arousal increases, performance decreases
b. Arousal can be either too high or too low
c. Top performance occurs at a moderate level of arousal
d. A and C
e. B and C

112. Hanin’s zones of optimal functioning approach suggests that
a. Each individual has a specific optimal level of efficiency
b. Performance is best when arousal is moderate
c. Performance is best when arousal is high
d. The zone of optimal functioning is the same for all individuals
e. None of the above

113. There is a direct relationship between one’s level of
a. Cognitive anxiety and somatic anxiety
b. Trait anxiety and state anxiety
c. Arousal and stress
d. A and C
e. B and C

114. The physiological response and decision making occur in which stage of the stress process?
a. Stage 1
b. Stage 2
c. Stage 3
d. Stage 4

115. Which personality disposition(s) is (are) related to change in state anxiety?
a. Trait anxiety
b. Social physique anxiety
c. Self-esteem
d. All of the above
e. A and C

116. Athletes lower in self-esteem are more likely to experience
a. Low confidence and high state anxiety
b. Low confidence and low state anxiety
c. Low confidence and low trait anxiety
d. High confidence and high state anxiety
e. Low confidence and low arousal

117. A “catastrophe” occurs, according to catastrophe theory, with
a. High state and trait anxiety
b. High cognitive and somatic anxiety
c. High cognitive anxiety and high physiological arousal
d. High somatic anxiety and low physiological anxiety
e. None of the above

118. Which of the following is NOT a physical manifestation of excess state anxiety?
a. Feeling threatened
b. Muscle tension
c. Attentional problems
d. A and C
e. B and C

119. Appropriate guidelines for applying arousal and anxiety knowledge include
a. Recognizing the signs of increased arousal and anxiety
b. Recognizing how personal and situational factors influence arousal and performance
c. Tailoring coaching and instructional practices to individuals
d. All of the above
e. A and C

120. The quarterback needs to shift his attentional focus from surveying the field for receivers to delivery of a pass. This shift would be from
a. Broad-external to broad-internal
b. Broad-external to broad-external
c. Broad-external to narrow-external
d. Broad-external to narrow-internal
e. Narrow-external to broad-external

121. Multidimensional anxiety theory predicts
a. A negative relationship between cognitive anxiety and performance
b. An inverted-U relationship between somatic anxiety and performance
c. An inverted-U relationship between cognitive anxiety and performance
d. A and C
e. A and B

122. The relationship between arousal and performance depends on one’s interpretation of the arousal level. This is the basic approach of
a. Catastrophe theory
b. Drive theory
c. Reversal theory
d. Inverted-U hypothesis
e. Zones of optimal functioning

123. Which of the following is (are) true regarding the home-court advantage?
a. It is greatest in baseball and football
b. Between 1924 and 1982, the home team in the baseball World Series won 77% of the time when there was a seventh game
c. Between 1984 and 1994 in the National Basketball Association, the home team won 47% of the time when there was a seventh game during the play-offs
d. A and B
e. None of the above

124. Which theory predicts a linear relationship between arousal and performance?
a. Catastrophe theory
b. Drive theory
c. Inverted theory
d. Zones of optimal functioning
e. Reversal theory

125. A highly trait-anxious athlete (compared to a less trait-anxious athlete) would perceive competition as
a. More threatening and less anxiety producing
b. Less threatening and less anxiety producing
c. More threatening and more anxiety producing
d. Less threatening and more anxiety producing
e. None of the above

126. One’s general level of anxiety that stays relatively stable over time refers to
a. Trait anxiety
b. State anxiety
c. Cognitive anxiety
d. Somatic anxiety
e. Arousal

127. The results of Weinberg and Hurt’s (1976) study on college students with high and low trait anxiety demonstrated that
a. Increased muscle soreness contributed to inferior performance
b. Increased muscle tension contributed to inferior performance
c. Increased coordination difficulties contributed to inferior performance
d. A and C
e. B and C

128. Team sports of basketball and football are examples of which of the following classification of games?
a. Competitive means—competitive ends
b. Cooperative means—competitive ends
c. Individual means—individual ends
d. Cooperative means—cooperative ends
e. Cooperative means—individual ends

129. In Kelley and Stahelski’s study using the prisoner’s dilemma game, they found that
a. Competitors drew cooperators into competition
b. Cooperators drew competitors into cooperation
c. Cooperators cooperated and competitors competed
d. A and C
e. B and C

130. Which of the following is (are) characteristics of cooperative games?
a. They require little equipment or money
b. They emphasize participation by all players
c. Players learn from mistakes rather than hide from them
d. All of the above
e. A and B

131. Coakley defines competition as
a. Situation in which rewards are distributed equally among the participants
b. Social process that occurs when rewards are distributed on the basis of comparative performance
c. Situation in which the goals of the participants are mutually interdependent
d. B and C
e. None of the above

132. In the field experiments conducted by Sherif and Sherif, the experimenters first
a. Created strong group identity
b. Created hostility among the groups
c. Created cooperation among the counselors
d. Created competition among the counselors

133. In his study of the effects of a 14-week program of cooperative games, Orlick found that
a. Kids exposed to cooperative games engaged in three times as much cooperative behavior during free play as did kids in the control group
b. Games played by the control group tended to emphasize individualistic concerns
c. Kids exposed to cooperative games had higher self-esteem at the end of the program than kids in the control group
d. All of the above
e. A and B

134. One athlete looks forward to competition while another dreads the upcoming event. This is an example of
a. The objective competitive situation
b. The subjective competitive situation
c. Response
d. Consequences

135. Which of the following statements is (are) FALSE?
a. Boys play competitive games more frequently than girls
b. Boys’ games are more aggressive and involve greater risk-taking than do girls’ games
c. Girls play games in predominantly male groups often more often than boys play games in predominantly female groups
d. None of the above
e. A and C

136. The key part of Marten’s definition of competition is
a. Social comparison
b. Observational learning
c. Objective outcome
d. Positive reinforcement
e. None of the above

137. In relation to the subjective competitive situation (stage 2), which of the following is (are) true?
a. Males score higher than females on win orientation
b. Females score higher than males on goal orientation
c. Athletes score higher than nonathletes in competitive orientation
d. All of the above
e. A and B

____________ is physical activity that is planned, structured, and repetitive.
a. Physical fitness
b. Exercise
c. Leisure activity
d. Sport

Teaching, consulting, and research are the 3 roles of a Sport Psychology Practitioner
a. True
b. False

The independent variable(s) in a study examining the effects of imagery on stress would be?
a. None of the answers
b. Stress
c. Imagery
d. Both stress and imagery

Cognitive-behavioral orientation states that behavior is determined by:
a. Underlying psychophysiological processes of the brain
b. Both environment and thoughts
c. Social environment and the personal makeup of the individual

Zajonc’s social facilitation theory predicts that performance:
a. On well-learned tasks is facilitated by an audience
b. On well-learned tasks is hindered by an audience
c. Is not affected by an audience
d. On novel tasks is facilitated by an audience

________ is (are) the way we learn to adjust to the environment
a. Psychological core
b. Role-related behavior
c. Typical responses
d. Belief systems

An intra-individual approach to psychological testing means that individuals are compared:
a. To population norms
b. With how they usually score on a psychological inventory
c. To norms for their age and gender
d. Based on objective and subjective assessments

Aggressive people acting aggressively in an aggressive situation is an example of:
a. The psychodynamic approach
b. The interactional approach
c. The trait approach
d. The situational approach

The part of personality structure is the least stable and is heavily influenced by the situation
a. Psychological core
b. Typical responses
c. Role-related behavior
d. None of the above

Which of the following is NOT a guideline for the use of mood profiling with elite athletes?
a. Use it to monitor training load
b. Use it to monitor the acclimatization process
c. Use it as a predictor of team success
d. Use it for identification of overtrained athletes

Achievement motivation can best be viewed as:
a. A situational factor
b. A personality factor
c. An attributional factor
d. An unstable factor

Stable attributions are linked to:
a. Affect
b. Cognition
c. Expectations of future success or failure
d. Physiological manifestations

According to Ewing and Seefeldt (1996), which is NOT a motive cited for youth sport participation?
a. Having fun
b. Being with friends
c. Experiencing excitement
d. All are cited motives

In terms of emotional factors, high achievers focus on _________, whereas low achievers focus on __________
a. Elation; depression
b. Fun; depression
c. Pride; depression
d. Pride; shame

Need achievement theory is best at predicting situations where there is a _________ chance of success
a. High (>75%)
b. Low (<25%)
c. Moderate (50%)
d. None of the above

According to the catastrophe model, a catastrophe occurs with:
a. High state and high trait anxiety
b. High cognitive anxiety and high physiological arousal
c. High physiological and high somatic anxiety
d. High somatic anxiety and low physiological arousal

Which is NOT a main factor in the stress response?
a. Environmental demands
b. Behavioral consequences
c. Perceptions of demand
d. All are main factors

State anxiety would be harder to manipulate in an experiment compared to trait anxiety
a. True
b. False

Which state is true?
a. Athletes generally interpret anxiety as more facilitating
b. A mix of positive emotions appear to enhance performance
c. Personal and situational factors affect anxiety interpretation
d. All of the above are true

What is the main difference between the inverted U hypothesis and the Individualized Zones of Optimal Functioning (IZOF)?
a. Optimal anxiety is viewed as a bandwidth in IZOF
b. Optimal arousal occurs at the midpoint in the Inverted U
c. IZOF takes into account cognitive factors
d. Both A and B
e. None of the above

Characteristic(s) of cooperative games include:
a. They require little equipment or money
b. They emphasize increased participation by the best players
c. Players learn from mistakes rather than hide from them
d. Both A and C

Objective competitive situations, subjective competitive situations, responses, and consequences make up the process of:
a. Stress
b. Competition
c. Punishment
d. Training

In general, research indicates that athletes are less successful than non-athletes
a. True
b. False

The Sport Orientations Questionnaire (SOQ) consists of all of the following except
a. Competitiveness
b. Win orientation
c. Motivation
d. Goal orientation

Which of the following statements is true?
a. Boys play competitive games more frequently than girls
b. Boy’s games are less aggressive than girls’ games
c. Girls play in male groups more often than boys
d. Both A and C