A) b1 = 1.
B) the long run mean is b0 + b1.
C) E(et)=0.
Explanation: B) For a random walk, the long-run mean is undefined. The slope coefficient is one, b1=1, and that is what makes the long-run mean undefined: mean = b0/(1-b1).
Brice has concluded the exchange rate follows a random walk without a drift. The current value of the exchange rate is 2.2. Under these conditions, which of the following would be least likely?
A) The residuals of the forecasting model are autocorrelated.
B) The forecast for next period is 2.2.
C) The process is not covariance stationary.
Explanation: A)The one-period forecast of a random walk model without drift is E(xt+1) = E(xt + et ) = xt + 0, so the forecast is simply xt = 2.
2. For a random walk process, the variance changes with the value of the observation. However, the error term et = xt – xt-1 is not autocorrelated.
A) We cannot use an AR(1) model on a time series that consists of a random walk.
B) If a time series is a random walk, first differencing will result in covariance stationarity.
C) An autoregressive model with two lags is equivalent to a moving-average model with two lags.
Explanation: C)An autoregression model regresses a dependent variable against one or more lagged values of itself whereas a moving average is an average of successive observations in a time series. A moving average model can have lagged terms but these are lagged values of the residual.
A) xt = b0 + b1xt ? 1 + εt.
B) xt = b0 + b1 xt ? 1.
C) xt = xt ? 1 + εt.
Explanation: A)The best estimate of random walk for period t is the value of the series at (t ? 1). If the random walk has a drift component, this drift is added to the previous period’s value of the time series to produce the forecast.
CFA Level 2 - Quantitative Analysis Session 3 - Reading 13: Time-Series Analysis-LOS i. (2023, Aug 02). Retrieved from https://paperap.com/cfa-level-2-quantitative-analysis-session-3-reading-13-time-series-analysis-los-i/